Latin Grammar Help

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Sot1006
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Latin Grammar Help

Post by Sot1006 »

Yes hello all :hello:

I am studying Latin's grammar right now because I am creating one for my conlang of Sendan. I need some help on verb conjugations. I already understand what the verb forms and tenses for the imperative and the indicative moods would be, but I can't quite understand what the subjunctive form exactly is. What would a translation of it be exactly. What does the word "portem" exactly mean? I know generally it means carry, but what exactly about "to carry"? Is it "let it carry" or "would carry" or something else? It's hard to identify the mood in English because it is rarely used.
Olivier
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Location: Toulouse

Re: Latin Grammar Help

Post by Olivier »

Subjunctive in neo-Latin languages has many derived uses but basically it is for a situation like for instance in French after "it is necessary" ... que ce soit fait "that it (may) be done", or: ... que tu le fasses "that you (should) do it" - that is, a situation where the action is not being done but rather being considered...
-- Olivier
Se nem kicsi, se nem nagy: Ni trop petit(e), ni trop grand(e):
Éppen hozzám való vagy! Tu es juste fait(e) pour moi!
ldngli
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Subjunctive

Post by ldngli »

Maybe two answers provide more of a perspective than one. So ,alongside Oliver's hint you may also consider mine.

The basic form of verbs is called "indicative": it supports matter-of-fact statements such as "I've done this", "Mary arrived last night" and most of our speech relates to it.

Whenever a psychological undertone is implied, subjunctive is called for: either because we mean to express a wish, fear, happiness ... In short, subjunctive is a statement about something PLUS our view on its impact on our lives. It typically shows in subordinate clauses rather than in the main clause of the sentence. Examples are: "I wish you **were** not so stubborn", "**Had** the company not so **miscalculated**, it would still be in business", ...

You may look at subjunctive as a verbal mode which shadows indicative (the base form): theoretically all indicative tenses are replicated in subjunctive.

In ancient languages, the distinction between base forms (indicative ones) and shadow forms (subjunctive ones) was clear cut, and you could judge the level of education of somebody from how subjuctive was handled. In Latin, its use was regulated by rigid rules set in the so-called "consecutio temporum" (sequence of verbal tenses).

It is still largely so in German, Spanish, Italian. English, due to its genius being oriented to using the minimum needed to make a point and to doing away with frills, has largely discarded subjunctive. However, in the above examples a change of forms is still visible in "if you were not so stubborn": that is clearly different from the indicative form (you are not so stubborn).

French is following suit. In most occcurrences where German, Spanish and Italian would expect subjuctive, French tends so simplify and falls back to indicative, or at least doesn't avail of the full gamut of subjunctive shadow forms: a long time ago the French would say "Si je **fusse** à ta place" and nowadays they replace subjunctive with the past form of indicative "si j'étais à ta place ..." (if I were you ...).

All this may sound far-fetched, but studying Latin makes you ask why things are done one way instead of another, it leads you to master the inner workings of language. Next to Latin, German is also good in this respect. Don't feel that studying a dead language is a waste of time. Those inner workings are implied in all languages because they are linked to how mind works in articulating statements. Latin and German are excellent as a way of exploring language.

All this being said, cross check my views with a linguist, because I am not one.
Sot1006
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Re: Subjunctive

Post by Sot1006 »

So basically the subjunctive mode is really not what is actual act, but instead describes possibilities and stuff like that. I think I get it.

And thanks for a great German grammar lesson, because I am studying German at school right now. This is my first year and already I've gotten extra "honors credit" for not only aceing my semester test, but also having a wide knowledge of the grammar system. I couldn't understand what the subjunctive mode was at first because the book I used was unclear and my teacher didn't make sense either. Now I understand. So, danke schõn! :D

Auf Wiedersehen!
ldngli
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Bitte

Post by ldngli »

Bitte sehr, und viel Glück mit deinem Studium! (Ich habe versucht, dir zu antworten - aber mein Deutsch ist leider furchtbar.)

Yes, I guess you got it.
On the one hand you have indicative statements - whereby you act as a camera or a tape recorder: you neutrally report facts.

On the other, you make comments, explore possibilities, pass judgments, vent feelings. For that, some languages have a full fledged verbal mode called subjuctive.

Other languages (English, French, to some extent Italian too, but Italian teachers are still cracking pupils when they venture too far) are in the process of simplifying by mostly using indicative and highlighting the reasoning about or emotionally reacting to facts by resorting to the kind of speech figures Olivier showed to you (may be done ...) rather than have a shadow verbal mode alongside indicative.

One more thing: in countries with a fully developed subjunctive, maybe less than 5% per cent of the population use it. In my own country, people with low schooling who know what is good for them stick to indicative only. The few who try to impress without the necessary knowledge are laughed at. So, if you want to look at it in a jaded way, the more a country is democratic the less subjunctive is found in its grammar.
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